Đề thi giao lưu HSG tiếng anh lớp 6 năm học 2018 – 2019 huyện Tam Dương có đáp án

Đề thi giao lưu HSG tiếng anh lớp 6 năm học 2018 – 2019 huyện Tam Dương có đáp án

Đề thi này là một tài liệu cấp huyện được phòng GD&ĐT huyện Tam Dương, Vĩnh Phúc phê duyệt vào năm học 2018 – 2019 dành cho các em học sinh giỏi môn tiếng anh 6 được blog hỗ trợ tài liệu thu thập và chia sẻ lên website. Đây là một đề thi cấp huyện khá hay nên các bạn học sinh hay các thầy cô, phụ huynh có thể sử dụng đề thi tiếng anh 6 năm 2018 – 2019 huyện Tam Dương có đáp án này làm tài liệu cho các em rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng cũng như ôn luyện lại kiến thức ( có file nghe được ghi âm ở phần bên dưới)


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Đề thi này là một tài liệu cấp huyện được phòng GD&ĐT huyện Tam Dương, Vĩnh Phúc phê duyệt vào năm học 2018 – 2019 dành cho các em học sinh giỏi môn tiếng anh 6 được blog hỗ trợ tài liệu thu thập và chia sẻ lên website. Đây là một đề thi cấp huyện khá hay nên các bạn học sinh hay các thầy cô, phụ huynh có thể sử dụng đề thi tiếng anh 6 năm 2018 – 2019 huyện Tam Dương có đáp án này làm tài liệu cho các em rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng cũng như ôn luyện lại kiến thức ( có file nghe được ghi âm ở phần bên dưới)

Nhấn vào link sau để tải file ghi âm : tại đây

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

 

 

Đề thi này gồm 04 trang

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN

NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

 

PART A – LISTENING.

  1. * Listen and write.

New Street school library

  1. Full name:                                    Sarah Tanner
  2. Age : _________________________
  3. Teacher’s name : _________________________
  4. Favourite books: _________________________
  5. Hobbies: _________________________
  6. How many books: _________________________

 

* Listen and write the answer to correct heading. What did Ben do last week?

0. Monday 0.   B A. He bought  a book in the village shop and sat on the sand and read it
1. Wednesday 1. …….… B. He went to kind of museum and saw lots of different fish
2. Saturday 2. …….… C. He went to the beach and climbed up to the top of a big rock
3. Tuesday 3. …….… D. He went for a walk in the village, ice creams
4. Friday 4. …….… E. He went fishing in boat
5. Sunday 5. …….… F. He saw a film about a woman climber

 

PART B – PHONETICS.

  1. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
  2. A. traveled B. surprised               C. worked                               D. climbed
  3. A. too B. food C. cook                                    D. pool
  4. A. listen B. take                         C. light                                    D. understand

* Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.

  1. A. comment B. symbol                   C. dirty                                    D. enjoy
  2. A. behave B. decorate                  C. expect                                 D. describe

 

PART C – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR.

III. Choose the best answer A,B,C or D to complete each of the following sentences.

  1. There are flights daily to Ho Chi Minh City……….…Monday.
  2. besides B. after                                    C. except                                 D. on
  3. It’s expensive ……….…to Nha Trang by plane. Would you mind ……….…by train?
  4. travel / to go B. to travel / going      C. to travel / to go                   D. travel / going
  5. Susan has worked for that company……….…4 years.
  6. since         B. during                     C. for                                       D. over
  7. How……….…rice does he want?
  8. many B. much                      C. any                                      D. about
  9. Superstitions still……….…an important part of life for many people in Vietnam.
  10. play             B. take                         C. do                                       D. give
  11. Educated women are likely to get ……….…jobs and become more important at home.
  12. well-trained B. well-paid                C. well-prepared                     D. well-educated
  13. What about ……….…a cup of coffee?
  14. having             B. have                        C. you have                             D. do you have
  15. You ……….…pick those flowers. Don’t you see the sign?
  16. can’t B. don’t need to          C. mustn’t                               D. needn’t
  17. How ……….…going by bike to the pagoda?
  18. there B. sport                       C. about                                  D. time
  19. Sorry, I take the wrong book ……….…mistake.
  20. by B. of                           C. with                                    D. in
  21. This ceremony is known under different names.
  22. clever B. fortunate                 C. traditional                          D. numerous
  23. I don’t have……….…apples but I have……….…oranges.
  24. any / some B. some / any              C. some / some                       D. any / any
  25. Don’t throw trash into the river. It……….…water.
  26. plows B. saves                       C. damages                             D. pollutes
  27. You should pay more……….…to the lessons in class.
  28. part             B. care                         C. attention                             D. notice
  29. ……….…she was tired, she watched a film last night.
  30. Although B. Although of            C. Despite                               D. In spite of

 

  1. Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct it.
Sentences Mistake Correction
1. Ba gets up at 6 o’clock and gets dressing.    
2. In the morning, Hoa washes her face, brushes her tooth and then has breakfast.    
3. How often does Mr. John go to Ha Noi? – Seldom, one a year.    
4. In spite of having a lot of money, but he lives unhappily.    
5. If you don’t study harder, you would fail the exams.    
6. The film I watched yesterday was very interested.    
7. The three Rs stand of Reduce – Reuse – Recycle.    

 

  1. Provide the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTERS.
  2. Very few people can catch the……….…cheese because it can travel up to 112 km an hour. (ROLL)
  3. If more people cycle, there will be……….…air pollution. Right?             (LITTLE)
  4. There was no ……….…for his absence from class yesterday.                         (EXPLAIN)
  5. Meat is not a(n)……….…food if we know how much to eat.             (HEALTH)
  6. Walking in the rain gives me……….…                                                 (PLEASE)
  7. Paris is ……….…for the Eiffel Tower.                                     (FAME)
  8. Tomorrow we’re cycling around to……….…the city. (DISCOVERY)
  9. During his career he became ……….…around the world as “The King of Football”. (KNOW)
  10. Life today is……….…from life 50 years ago.             (DIFFER)
  11. This is the biggest ……….…in the city.             (BUILD)

 

  1. Rearrange the order of the sentences to have a complete conversation.
  2. By train.
  3. How long are you going to stay there?
  4. I’m fine. Where are you going to visit this summer?
  5. Fine, thanks. And you, Nam?
  6. How are you going to travel?
  7. For a week.
  8. Hello Ba. How are you?
  9. I’m going to visit my uncle in Nha Trang.

 

PART D – READING

VII. Which notice (A-H) says this (1-5)?

For questions 1-5, mark the correct letter A-H on the answer sheet.

VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question.

Nha Trang is one of the most important tourist hubs of Vietnam, thanks to its beautiful beaches with fine and clean sand and the clear ocean water with mild temperature all year round. There are several resorts such as Vinpearl, Diamond Bay and Ana Mandra, amusement and water parks both in the city and on islands off the coast. The possibly most beautiful street of Nha Trang is Tran Phu Street along the seaside, sometimes referred to as the Pacific Coast Highway of Vietnam.

Lying off Nha Trang is the Hon Tre Island (Bamboo Island), with a major resort operated by the Vinpearl Group. The Vinpearl Cable Car, a gondola lift system, links the main land to the five-star resort and theme park on Hon Tre Island.

  1. Nha Trang is considered as one of the most beautiful tourist hubs in Vietnam because …………
  2. it has several resorts such as Vinpearl, Diamond Bay and Ana Mandra.
  3. it has beautiful coastal villages with mild temperature all year round.
  4. it has beautiful beaches and clear ocean water with mild temperature all year round.
  5. the Vinpearl Cable Car links the main land to the five-star resort on Hon Tre Island.
  6. According to the text, Diamond Bay is the name of a/an …………
  7. resort B. cable car                 C. beach                                  D. island
  8. The Pacific Coast Highway of Vietnam referred to …………in Nha Trang.
  9. the city B. the islands              C. Tran Phu Street                  D. Vinpearl Group
  10. The word “major” in line 6 is closest in meaning to …………
  11. modern B. beautiful                 C. expensive                           D. main
  12. According to the text, which of the following statements is NOT true?
  13. The Hon Tre Island (Bamboo Island) is not on the main land of Nha Trang.
  14. Hon Tre Island is one of the most important tourist hubs of Vietnam.
  15. Tourists can go to Hon Tre Island from the mainland of Nha Trang by cable car.
  16. Tran Phu Street is possibly the most beautiful street of Nha Trang.

 

  1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A or B, C, D) to fill in the gap.

Kate has three (1)…………a day: breakfast, lunch and dinner. She usually (2)…………breakfast at home. She has bread, eggs and milk (3)…………breakfast. (4)…………school, Kate and her friends always (5)…………lunch at one o’clock. They often have fish or meat, vegetables for lunch. Kate has dinner (6)…………her parents at home at 7 o’clock. They often have meat or fish, bread, chicken (7)…………vegetables for dinner. After dinner, they eat (8)…………fruits or cakes. Kate (9)………… dinner because it is a big and happy meal of the day. Her family goes out for dinner (10)…………a month.

  1. A. breakfast B. lunch                      C. meals                      D. cooking
  2. A. have B. has                          C. do                           D. does
  3. A. on     B. in                            C. to                            D. for
  4. A. At B. In                            C. On                          D. For
  5. A. has B. have                        C. having                    D. to have
  6. A. to     B. for                           C. with                        D. and
  7. A. and B. or                            C. to                            D. in
  8. A. a B. an                            C. any                          D. some
  9. A. like B. likes                        C. to like                     D. not like
  10. A. one B. one time                 C. once                        D. once time
  11. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage.

BENEFITS OF PLAYING SPORTS

Firstly, playing sports can give you a healthy life and a fit body to you. You will be more active and healthier (1)…………playing sports. To illustrate, you can have a lower chance of getting a serious illness such as (2)…………attack or high blood pressure.

In other words, it increases your resistance to illness. In leisure time, you can play sports (3)………… your friends or your relatives, this not only helps you but (4)…………motivates everyone around you to take part in sports and have good (5)…………

Furthermore, there are some (6)…………which you can play easily such as table tennis, tennis or football and after that, you feel completely relaxed or (7)…………free from your stress.

Moreover, you also need to allow (8)…………encourage children to play sports, especially some outside activities such as football, basketball or volleyball to decrease the time that your children (9)…………sitting in front of computers or watching television.

These sports can help them have endurance, quickness and even teach them how to improve team spirit and work in groups. These sports also teach them how to communicate with their teammates, and show them (10)…………. active and creative they are.

PART E – WRITING.

  1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
  2. We visited Quy Nhon last summer.

à We paid …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

  1. What was your weight last year?

à How ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. Stop talking or you won’t understand the lesson.

à If ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

  1. He hasn’t eaten in that restaurant since he left the city.

à The last time ………………………………………….…………………………………………………..

  1. I spent 2 hours doing my homework last night.

à It ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

XII. How should you do to help your school greener?

Write a paragraph of about 100- 120 words to express your ideas.———————————————-

———-HẾT———

(Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

Họ tên thí sinh…………………………………………………………….SBD:……………..phòng thi………….

Ngoài đề thi HSG tiếng anh 6 năm học 2018 – 2019 huyện Tam Dương có đáp án ở đây còn rất nhiều tài liệu khác cho các bạn sinh viên tham khảo tại blog hỗ trợ tại liệu. Trong đó, việc chia sẻ những đề thi của các bạn cho chúng tôi cũng là rất cần thiết

Chia sẻ đề thi, tài liệu qua email : bloghotro.com@gmail.com

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